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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 08:27

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Dont you think we should put Project 2025 into full force to completely decimate the evil and corrupt Democratic party? The answer is yes.

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

How do individuals become targeted individuals? Is it solely due to experiencing stalking or harassment, or are there other factors involved?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

How should one handle a situation where they suspect their partner of cheating, but their partner denies it and claims it is all in their head?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.